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Skeletal System Practice Questions

87 multiple-choice questions on Skeletal system for paramedic and EMT students, from Chapter 8 (Anatomy and Physiology). Read each question, pick your answer, then tap Show answer to check it and read the explanation.

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87 practice questions

  1. How many bones are in the adult human skeleton?

    1. A. 186
    2. B. 226
    3. C. 300
    4. D. 206
    Show answer

    Answer: D. 206

    Adults have 206 bones. Infants have more, and some fuse together over time.

  2. The primary function of red bone marrow is:

    1. A. Storing fat for energy
    2. B. Producing blood cells
    3. C. Releasing growth hormone
    4. D. Excreting excess calcium
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Producing blood cells

    This is hematopoiesis. Red marrow makes red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

  3. Which cells build new bone?

    1. A. Osteoclasts
    2. B. Osteoblasts
    3. C. Erythrocytes
    4. D. Chondrocytes
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Osteoblasts

    Osteoblasts build bone and osteoclasts break it down. Tip: "b" is for build.

  4. The periosteum is:

    1. A. The cavity that holds yellow marrow
    2. B. The growth plate near the bone end
    3. C. Cartilage covering the joint surface
    4. D. The dense membrane covering bone
    Show answer

    Answer: D. The dense membrane covering bone

    The periosteum is rich in nerves and blood vessels, which is why fractures hurt so much. It also supplies the bone with blood.

  5. The sternum, ribs, and skull bones are examples of which bone type?

    1. A. Flat
    2. B. Short
    3. C. Long
    4. D. Irregular
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Flat

    Flat bones protect organs and contain red marrow. Vertebrae are irregular bones; carpals are short bones.

  6. A patient asks why his torn knee cartilage may never fully heal. The best explanation is that cartilage:

    1. A. Is constantly broken down by osteoclasts
    2. B. Has little or no direct blood supply
    3. C. Contains more nerves than bone
    4. D. Lacks cells able to produce new matrix
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Has little or no direct blood supply

    Cartilage is avascular; it gets nutrients by diffusion from surrounding fluid. Repair cells and nutrients therefore arrive slowly, and healing is poor. Osteoclasts break down bone, not cartilage. Cartilage is not richly innervated. It does contain chondrocytes that make matrix, but they are few and work slowly without a blood supply.

  7. The axial skeleton includes the:

    1. A. Shoulder girdle, clavicles, and scapulae
    2. B. Humeri, forearm bones, and hand bones
    3. C. Pelvic girdle, femurs, and lower legs
    4. D. Skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

    The axial skeleton forms the body's central axis. The appendicular skeleton is the limbs and the girdles that attach them.

  8. Fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone is a:

    1. A. Fascia
    2. B. Tendon
    3. C. Cartilage
    4. D. Ligament
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Ligament

    Ligaments connect bone to bone. Tendons connect muscle to bone.

  9. The elbow and knee are examples of which joint type?

    1. A. Ball-and-socket
    2. B. Hinge
    3. C. Saddle
    4. D. Pivot
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Hinge

    Hinge joints move in one plane, allowing flexion and extension.

  10. The shoulder and hip are examples of which joint type?

    1. A. Ball-and-socket
    2. B. Fibrous suture
    3. C. Synovial hinge
    4. D. Gliding (plane)
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Ball-and-socket

    Ball-and-socket joints allow the widest range of motion. The shoulder is the most commonly dislocated joint.

  11. The longest and strongest bone in the body is the:

    1. A. Pelvis
    2. B. Femur
    3. C. Tibia
    4. D. Humerus
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Femur

    A femur fracture can cause significant blood loss, around 1 to 1.5 L.

  12. How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

    1. A. 7
    2. B. 12
    3. C. 5
    4. D. 10
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 12

    The spine has 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 fused sacral, and 4 fused coccygeal vertebrae.

  13. How many cervical vertebrae are there?

    1. A. 12
    2. B. 7
    3. C. 4
    4. D. 5
    Show answer

    Answer: B. 7

    There are 7 cervical vertebrae. Mnemonic: breakfast at 7, lunch at 12, dinner at 5.

  14. C1, which supports the skull, is called the:

    1. A. Odontoid
    2. B. Axis
    3. C. Coccyx
    4. D. Atlas
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Atlas

    C1 is the atlas (it holds up the head like Atlas holding the world). C2 is the axis.

  15. Ribs 11 and 12 are known as:

    1. A. False ribs
    2. B. Costal cartilage
    3. C. True ribs
    4. D. Floating ribs
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Floating ribs

    Floating ribs have no anterior attachment. Ribs 1-7 are true ribs, and ribs 8-10 are false ribs.

  16. The pelvis is formed by the fusion of which bones?

    1. A. Ilium, sacrum, and coccyx
    2. B. Ilium, ischium, and pubis
    3. C. Sacrum, coccyx, and lumbar spine
    4. D. Ischium, pubis, and femoral head
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Ilium, ischium, and pubis

    Each hip bone forms from these three fused bones. Pelvic fractures can bleed heavily. The sacrum and coccyx join the hip bones at joints but do not fuse with them, and the femoral head sits in the acetabulum as part of the femur, not the hip bone.

  17. Which forearm bone is on the thumb side?

    1. A. Scaphoid
    2. B. Ulna
    3. C. Olecranon
    4. D. Radius
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Radius

    The radius is on the thumb side, which is also where you take the radial pulse. The ulna is on the pinky side. The scaphoid is a thumb-side bone of the wrist, not the forearm, and the olecranon is the elbow end of the ulna.

  18. Which lower leg bone bears most of the body's weight?

    1. A. Patella
    2. B. Fibula
    3. C. Tibia
    4. D. Talus
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Tibia

    The tibia (shin bone) bears the weight. The thinner fibula runs along the lateral side.

  19. The skeletal system performs all of these functions EXCEPT:

    1. A. Blood cell production
    2. B. Support and protection
    3. C. Hormone transport
    4. D. Movement with muscles
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Hormone transport

    It also stores calcium and phosphorus.

  20. Yellow bone marrow consists mainly of:

    1. A. Fat
    2. B. Blood-forming cells
    3. C. Cartilage
    4. D. Nerve tissue
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Fat

    Red marrow performs hematopoiesis.

  21. The shaft of a long bone is called the:

    1. A. Periosteum
    2. B. Epiphysis
    3. C. Metaphysis
    4. D. Diaphysis
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Diaphysis

    The ends are the epiphyses.

  22. The growth plate in a child's bone is located at the:

    1. A. Epiphyseal plate near each end
    2. B. Medullary cavity of the shaft
    3. C. Center of the diaphysis, or shaft
    4. D. Periosteum covering the shaft
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Epiphyseal plate near each end

    The growth plate lies near the bone ends. Injury there can affect future growth.

  23. Compact bone is:

    1. A. Found only in the skull and pelvis
    2. B. Dense and forms the outer layer of bone
    3. C. Soft tissue that fills the marrow cavity
    4. D. Porous and found inside the bone ends
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Dense and forms the outer layer of bone

    Cancellous or spongy bone lies inside.

  24. Cancellous bone is important because it:

    1. A. Forms the dense outer shell of bone
    2. B. Has no blood supply of its own
    3. C. Is lightweight and houses red marrow
    4. D. Forms only during childhood growth
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Is lightweight and houses red marrow

    Cancellous bone is lightweight, contains marrow, and absorbs stress. It is also called trabecular bone.

  25. Which cells break down bone tissue?

    1. A. Osteoblasts
    2. B. Chondrocytes
    3. C. Osteocytes
    4. D. Osteoclasts
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Osteoclasts

    Bone is continuously remodeled.

  26. Mature bone cells maintaining bone tissue are:

    1. A. Osteoblasts
    2. B. Osteoclasts
    3. C. Osteocytes
    4. D. Fibroblasts
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Osteocytes

    They sit within the bone matrix.

  27. Bone serves as the body's main storage site for:

    1. A. Sodium and chloride
    2. B. Iron and vitamin B12
    3. C. Potassium and magnesium
    4. D. Calcium and phosphorus
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Calcium and phosphorus

    Calcium is released when blood levels fall.

  28. The skull is composed of the:

    1. A. Cranium and mandible only
    2. B. Cranium only
    3. C. Cranium and facial bones
    4. D. Facial bones only
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Cranium and facial bones

    The cranium protects the brain.

  29. The only movable bone of the skull is the:

    1. A. Maxilla
    2. B. Zygoma
    3. C. Mandible
    4. D. Frontal bone
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Mandible

    It articulates at the temporomandibular joint.

  30. The bone at the base of the skull with a large opening for the spinal cord is the:

    1. A. Parietal bone
    2. B. Frontal bone
    3. C. Sphenoid
    4. D. Occipital bone
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Occipital bone

    That opening is the foramen magnum.

  31. The cheekbone is also called the:

    1. A. Nasal bone
    2. B. Mandible
    3. C. Zygoma
    4. D. Maxilla
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Zygoma

    It forms part of the orbit.

  32. The upper jaw is formed by the:

    1. A. Mandible
    2. B. Zygoma
    3. C. Vomer
    4. D. Maxillae
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Maxillae

    It holds the upper teeth.

  33. The sinuses function to:

    1. A. Cushion the brain against direct impact
    2. B. Lighten the skull and humidify air
    3. C. Equalize middle ear pressure
    4. D. Drain tears into the nasal cavity
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Lighten the skull and humidify air

    They also warm inhaled air and are lined with mucous membrane. The eustachian tube, not the sinuses, equalizes middle ear pressure, and the nasolacrimal duct drains tears into the nose.

  34. The vertebral column consists of how many vertebrae in the adult?

    1. A. 33, with some fused
    2. B. 24, all of them movable
    3. C. 31, matching spinal nerves
    4. D. 26, none of them fused
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 33, with some fused

    There are 24 movable vertebrae plus the sacrum and coccyx.

  35. How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

    1. A. 5
    2. B. 7
    3. C. 4
    4. D. 12
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 5

    They are the largest and bear the most weight.

  36. The sacrum consists of:

    1. A. 5 fused vertebrae
    2. B. 7 vertebrae
    3. C. 3 fused vertebrae
    4. D. 12 vertebrae
    Show answer

    Answer: A. 5 fused vertebrae

    It joins the pelvis at the sacroiliac joints.

  37. The coccyx is formed from:

    1. A. 1 vertebra
    2. B. 5 vertebrae
    3. C. 4 fused vertebrae
    4. D. 2 fused vertebrae
    Show answer

    Answer: C. 4 fused vertebrae

    It is the tailbone.

  38. C2, which allows rotation of the head, is the:

    1. A. Axis
    2. B. Odontoid only
    3. C. Vertebra prominens
    4. D. Atlas
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Axis

    The odontoid process projects from it.

  39. Intervertebral discs function to:

    1. A. Produce marrow for the vertebral bodies
    2. B. Directly encase and protect the spinal cord
    3. C. Store calcium released during remodeling
    4. D. Cushion the vertebrae and allow movement
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Cushion the vertebrae and allow movement

    A herniated disc may compress nerve roots.

  40. The spinal cord is protected by the:

    1. A. Vertebral bodies alone, anterior to the cord
    2. B. Ribs that wrap around the thoracic spine
    3. C. Vertebral foramina forming the spinal canal
    4. D. Spinous processes alone, behind the cord
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Vertebral foramina forming the spinal canal

    Vertebral fractures may or may not injure the cord.

  41. Ribs 1 through 7 are called:

    1. A. True ribs
    2. B. Costal ribs
    3. C. False ribs
    4. D. Floating ribs
    Show answer

    Answer: A. True ribs

    True ribs attach directly to the sternum by their own costal cartilage. Ribs 8 to 10 attach indirectly.

  42. The sternum consists of the:

    1. A. Manubrium, body, and costal cartilages
    2. B. Body, xiphoid process, and clavicles
    3. C. Xiphoid process and true ribs only
    4. D. Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process

    The angle of Louis is where the manubrium meets the body.

  43. The xiphoid process is clinically important as:

    1. A. A CPR landmark and diaphragm attachment
    2. B. The site where the second rib attaches
    3. C. The joint between the sternum and clavicle
    4. D. A major site of adult blood cell production
    Show answer

    Answer: A. A CPR landmark and diaphragm attachment

    The diaphragm attaches to it, and it marks the lower end of the CPR hand position. Avoid compressing directly over it.

  44. The clavicle connects the:

    1. A. Scapula to the humerus
    2. B. Humerus to the ribs
    3. C. Sternum to the ribs
    4. D. Scapula to the sternum
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Scapula to the sternum

    It is one of the most commonly fractured bones.

  45. The scapula is commonly known as the:

    1. A. Shoulder blade
    2. B. Collarbone
    3. C. Breastbone
    4. D. Wing bone of the pelvis
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Shoulder blade

    A scapular fracture implies significant force.

  46. The bone of the upper arm is the:

    1. A. Radius
    2. B. Humerus
    3. C. Femur
    4. D. Ulna
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Humerus

    It articulates at the shoulder and elbow.

  47. The bones of the wrist are the:

    1. A. Metacarpals
    2. B. Phalanges
    3. C. Carpals
    4. D. Tarsals
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Carpals

    There are eight carpal bones.

  48. The bones of the palm are the:

    1. A. Phalanges
    2. B. Metacarpals
    3. C. Carpals
    4. D. Radius and ulna
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Metacarpals

    Fingers are phalanges.

  49. The pelvic girdle protects:

    1. A. The lumbar spinal cord and its roots
    2. B. The liver, spleen, and upper abdominal organs
    3. C. The lower abdominal and pelvic organs
    4. D. The lungs and lower thoracic organs
    Show answer

    Answer: C. The lower abdominal and pelvic organs

    It also transfers weight to the legs.

  50. The upper flaring portion of the pelvis is the:

    1. A. Ischium
    2. B. Ilium
    3. C. Sacrum
    4. D. Pubis
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Ilium

    The iliac crest is a palpable landmark.

  51. The bone you sit on is the:

    1. A. Coccyx
    2. B. Ischium
    3. C. Ilium
    4. D. Pubis
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Ischium

    It forms the lower posterior pelvis.

  52. The anterior joint of the pelvis is the:

    1. A. Sacroiliac joint
    2. B. Acetabulum
    3. C. Hip joint
    4. D. Pubic symphysis
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Pubic symphysis

    It is a cartilaginous joint.

  53. The socket that receives the head of the femur is the:

    1. A. Condyle
    2. B. Acetabulum
    3. C. Glenoid fossa
    4. D. Olecranon
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Acetabulum

    Hip dislocations displace the femoral head from it.

  54. The kneecap is properly called the:

    1. A. Patella
    2. B. Condyle
    3. C. Meniscus
    4. D. Tibial plateau
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Patella

    It is a sesamoid bone within a tendon.

  55. The lateral bone of the lower leg is the:

    1. A. Femur
    2. B. Talus
    3. C. Fibula
    4. D. Tibia
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Fibula

    It bears little weight.

  56. The ankle bones are called the:

    1. A. Metatarsals
    2. B. Phalanges
    3. C. Tarsals
    4. D. Carpals
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Tarsals

    The calcaneus is the heel bone.

  57. The heel bone is the:

    1. A. Talus
    2. B. Navicular
    3. C. Calcaneus
    4. D. Cuboid
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Calcaneus

    Falls from height often fracture it.

  58. The medial malleolus is part of the:

    1. A. Fibula
    2. B. Femur
    3. C. Tibia
    4. D. Talus
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Tibia

    The lateral malleolus belongs to the fibula.

  59. A joint that permits no movement, such as a skull suture, is:

    1. A. Synovial and freely movable
    2. B. Cartilaginous and slightly movable
    3. C. Fibrous or immovable
    4. D. A synovial hinge joint
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Fibrous or immovable

    Sutures fuse in adulthood.

  60. A slightly movable joint, such as the pubic symphysis, is:

    1. A. Cartilaginous
    2. B. Synovial
    3. C. Ball and socket
    4. D. Fibrous
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Cartilaginous

    It permits limited motion.

  61. Synovial fluid functions to:

    1. A. Promote clotting after a joint injury
    2. B. Nourish the red marrow in the epiphysis
    3. C. Produce new cartilage on joint surfaces
    4. D. Lubricate and nourish the joint surfaces
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Lubricate and nourish the joint surfaces

    The synovial membrane secretes it.

  62. A pivot joint allows:

    1. A. Flexion and extension only
    2. B. No motion between the bones
    3. C. Gliding of flat surfaces only
    4. D. Rotation around a single axis
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Rotation around a single axis

    The joint between C1 and C2 is an example. The radius and ulna form another pivot joint.

  63. A saddle joint is found at the:

    1. A. Glenohumeral joint
    2. B. Interphalangeal joints
    3. C. Base of the thumb
    4. D. Radiocarpal (wrist) joint
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Base of the thumb

    It permits opposition of the thumb.

  64. A gliding joint is found:

    1. A. Between humerus and ulna
    2. B. Between femur and tibia
    3. C. Between femur and acetabulum
    4. D. Between adjacent carpal bones
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Between adjacent carpal bones

    Gliding joints also occur between vertebral facets. Motion occurs by surfaces sliding.

  65. Tendons attach:

    1. A. Bone to bone
    2. B. Muscle to muscle
    3. C. Muscle to bone
    4. D. Cartilage to bone
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Muscle to bone

    They transmit contraction force.

  66. A sprain involves injury to:

    1. A. Muscle fibers
    2. B. Bone
    3. C. Tendons only
    4. D. Ligaments
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Ligaments

    A strain involves muscle or tendon.

  67. Bursae function to:

    1. A. Anchor tendons firmly to bone
    2. B. Bind bone to bone across a joint
    3. C. Cover the ends of bones in joints
    4. D. Reduce friction at moving parts
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Reduce friction at moving parts

    Bursae are fluid-filled sacs that reduce friction between moving structures. Inflammation causes bursitis. Tendons themselves attach to bone, ligaments bind bone to bone, and articular cartilage covers the bone ends; bursae are cushions between these moving parts.

  68. Osteoporosis is characterized by:

    1. A. Excess bone formation
    2. B. Overgrowth of cartilage
    3. C. Inflammation of joints
    4. D. Loss of bone density and mass
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Loss of bone density and mass

    Loss of density increases fracture risk. It is most common in older women.

  69. Kyphosis refers to:

    1. A. Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine
    2. B. Fusion of adjacent thoracic vertebrae
    3. C. Exaggerated rounding of the upper back
    4. D. Exaggerated inward lumbar curvature
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Exaggerated rounding of the upper back

    Kyphosis is exaggerated forward curvature of the thoracic spine. It complicates airway positioning in older adults.

  70. Scoliosis refers to:

    1. A. Compression fracture of a vertebra
    2. B. Loss of the normal lumbar curvature
    3. C. Abnormal sideways curve of the spine
    4. D. Exaggerated rounding of the upper back
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Abnormal sideways curve of the spine

    Severe cases affect lung capacity.

  71. Arthritis generally refers to:

    1. A. Inflammation of a muscle
    2. B. Irritation of a nerve root
    3. C. Infection of the bone
    4. D. Inflammation of a joint with pain
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Inflammation of a joint with pain

    Joint inflammation causes pain and limited motion. Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis differ in cause.

  72. Bone healing after a fracture begins with:

    1. A. Hematoma formation, then callus
    2. B. Replacement of the break with cartilage only
    3. C. Immediate deposition of new compact bone
    4. D. Scar tissue bridging the bone ends permanently
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Hematoma formation, then callus

    A hematoma forms first, followed by callus development. Complete remodeling takes months.

  73. Which bone injury is most likely to cause significant blood loss?

    1. A. Nasal or orbital fracture
    2. B. Wrist or forearm fracture
    3. C. Finger or toe fracture
    4. D. Femur or pelvic fracture
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Femur or pelvic fracture

    Pelvic fractures can bleed into the retroperitoneum.

  74. Children's bones differ from adults' in that they:

    1. A. Contain no red marrow until puberty
    2. B. Are more brittle and shatter easily
    3. C. Heal more slowly than adult bone
    4. D. Are more flexible and may bend
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Are more flexible and may bend

    They may bend or buckle rather than break completely. Greenstick fractures are unique to children.

  75. Red marrow in adults is found primarily in:

    1. A. Flat bones and vertebrae
    2. B. Distal bones of the legs
    3. C. Shafts of the long bones
    4. D. Small bones of the hands
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Flat bones and vertebrae

    Adult red marrow is concentrated in the sternum, ribs, pelvis, and vertebrae. That is where IO sites and marrow biopsies target.

  76. The periosteum contributes to bone by:

    1. A. Storing fat for long-term energy
    2. B. Supplying blood and supporting repair
    3. C. Producing red marrow inside the shaft
    4. D. Forming the joint surfaces of bone
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Supplying blood and supporting repair

    It supplies blood and nerves and supports growth and repair. It is richly innervated, which is why fractures hurt.

  77. The appendicular skeleton includes:

    1. A. The skull and the spinal column
    2. B. The limbs and their girdles
    3. C. The ribs, sternum, and thoracic spine
    4. D. The sacrum, coccyx, and lumbar spine
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The limbs and their girdles

    The axial skeleton forms the central axis.

  78. The thoracic cage functions to:

    1. A. Protect thoracic organs and aid breathing
    2. B. Anchor the lower limbs to the axial skeleton
    3. C. Shield the bladder and lower pelvic organs
    4. D. Store calcium as its primary function
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Protect thoracic organs and aid breathing

    It protects the heart and lungs. Rib movement changes thoracic volume. Anchoring the lower limbs and protecting the bladder and pelvic organs are roles of the pelvic girdle. Ribs store some calcium, but that is not their main function.

  79. Which structure connects the ribs to the sternum?

    1. A. Intercostal muscles
    2. B. Pleural fascia
    3. C. Intercostal tendons
    4. D. Costal cartilage
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Costal cartilage

    It allows the chest wall to flex during breathing.

  80. An open fracture is one in which:

    1. A. The joint is also dislocated
    2. B. The overlying skin is broken
    3. C. The bone is bent but not broken
    4. D. The bone is broken in two places
    Show answer

    Answer: B. The overlying skin is broken

    The skin is broken at or near the fracture site. Infection risk rises considerably.

  81. A dislocation is defined as:

    1. A. A bone displaced from its joint
    2. B. A torn ligament without displacement
    3. C. A complete break through a bone
    4. D. A torn muscle crossing a joint
    Show answer

    Answer: A. A bone displaced from its joint

    Neurovascular status must be checked.

  82. The most commonly dislocated large joint is the:

    1. A. Elbow joint
    2. B. Hip joint
    3. C. Shoulder joint
    4. D. Knee joint
    Show answer

    Answer: C. Shoulder joint

    Its mobility comes at the cost of stability.

  83. A knee dislocation is a concern primarily because of:

    1. A. Risk of injury to the femoral nerve
    2. B. Risk of injury to the popliteal artery
    3. C. Risk of tearing the great saphenous vein
    4. D. Risk of tearing the Achilles tendon
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Risk of injury to the popliteal artery

    Check distal pulses carefully. The popliteal artery is tethered behind the knee and is often injured when the joint dislocates. The femoral nerve ends in the thigh, and the great saphenous vein is a superficial vein whose injury is not the main threat.

  84. Aging affects joints by:

    1. A. Thinning cartilage and causing stiffness
    2. B. Improving range of motion over time
    3. C. Thickening cartilage and increasing fluid
    4. D. Increasing bone density around joints
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Thinning cartilage and causing stiffness

    Cartilage thins and synovial fluid decreases. Range of motion declines gradually.

  85. Which term describes movement of a limb away from the midline?

    1. A. Flexion
    2. B. Abduction
    3. C. Adduction
    4. D. Extension
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Abduction

    Adduction brings it back toward the midline.

  86. Flexion refers to:

    1. A. Moving a limb in a circle
    2. B. Decreasing the angle at a joint
    3. C. Increasing the angle at a joint
    4. D. Turning a bone around its axis
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Decreasing the angle at a joint

    Bending the elbow is flexion.

  87. Rotation refers to:

    1. A. Bending at a joint
    2. B. Turning around an axis
    3. C. Moving toward midline
    4. D. Moving away from midline
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Turning around an axis

    Turning the head is an example.

More Anatomy and Physiology practice questions

Want the whole chapter mixed together? The Chapter 8: Anatomy and Physiology practice test gives you a 10 Question Blitz or a full 100-question exam simulation with a section-by-section score. Browse every paramedic topic or try the NREMT paramedic practice test.

These practice questions were written for this site. They are not the publisher's test bank and are not affiliated with or endorsed by Jones & Bartlett Learning, the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, or the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians. Use them alongside your textbook and your instructor's objectives.