Skeletal System Practice Questions
87 multiple-choice questions on Skeletal system for paramedic and EMT students, from Chapter 8 (Anatomy and Physiology). Read each question, pick your answer, then tap Show answer to check it and read the explanation.
87 practice questions
How many bones are in the adult human skeleton?
- A. 186
- B. 226
- C. 300
- D. 206
Show answer
Answer: D. 206
Adults have 206 bones. Infants have more, and some fuse together over time.
The primary function of red bone marrow is:
- A. Storing fat for energy
- B. Producing blood cells
- C. Releasing growth hormone
- D. Excreting excess calcium
Show answer
Answer: B. Producing blood cells
This is hematopoiesis. Red marrow makes red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
Which cells build new bone?
- A. Osteoclasts
- B. Osteoblasts
- C. Erythrocytes
- D. Chondrocytes
Show answer
Answer: B. Osteoblasts
Osteoblasts build bone and osteoclasts break it down. Tip: "b" is for build.
The periosteum is:
- A. The cavity that holds yellow marrow
- B. The growth plate near the bone end
- C. Cartilage covering the joint surface
- D. The dense membrane covering bone
Show answer
Answer: D. The dense membrane covering bone
The periosteum is rich in nerves and blood vessels, which is why fractures hurt so much. It also supplies the bone with blood.
The sternum, ribs, and skull bones are examples of which bone type?
- A. Flat
- B. Short
- C. Long
- D. Irregular
Show answer
Answer: A. Flat
Flat bones protect organs and contain red marrow. Vertebrae are irregular bones; carpals are short bones.
A patient asks why his torn knee cartilage may never fully heal. The best explanation is that cartilage:
- A. Is constantly broken down by osteoclasts
- B. Has little or no direct blood supply
- C. Contains more nerves than bone
- D. Lacks cells able to produce new matrix
Show answer
Answer: B. Has little or no direct blood supply
Cartilage is avascular; it gets nutrients by diffusion from surrounding fluid. Repair cells and nutrients therefore arrive slowly, and healing is poor. Osteoclasts break down bone, not cartilage. Cartilage is not richly innervated. It does contain chondrocytes that make matrix, but they are few and work slowly without a blood supply.
The axial skeleton includes the:
- A. Shoulder girdle, clavicles, and scapulae
- B. Humeri, forearm bones, and hand bones
- C. Pelvic girdle, femurs, and lower legs
- D. Skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
Show answer
Answer: D. Skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
The axial skeleton forms the body's central axis. The appendicular skeleton is the limbs and the girdles that attach them.
Fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone is a:
- A. Fascia
- B. Tendon
- C. Cartilage
- D. Ligament
Show answer
Answer: D. Ligament
Ligaments connect bone to bone. Tendons connect muscle to bone.
The elbow and knee are examples of which joint type?
- A. Ball-and-socket
- B. Hinge
- C. Saddle
- D. Pivot
Show answer
Answer: B. Hinge
Hinge joints move in one plane, allowing flexion and extension.
The shoulder and hip are examples of which joint type?
- A. Ball-and-socket
- B. Fibrous suture
- C. Synovial hinge
- D. Gliding (plane)
Show answer
Answer: A. Ball-and-socket
Ball-and-socket joints allow the widest range of motion. The shoulder is the most commonly dislocated joint.
The longest and strongest bone in the body is the:
- A. Pelvis
- B. Femur
- C. Tibia
- D. Humerus
Show answer
Answer: B. Femur
A femur fracture can cause significant blood loss, around 1 to 1.5 L.
How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
- A. 7
- B. 12
- C. 5
- D. 10
Show answer
Answer: B. 12
The spine has 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 fused sacral, and 4 fused coccygeal vertebrae.
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
- A. 12
- B. 7
- C. 4
- D. 5
Show answer
Answer: B. 7
There are 7 cervical vertebrae. Mnemonic: breakfast at 7, lunch at 12, dinner at 5.
C1, which supports the skull, is called the:
- A. Odontoid
- B. Axis
- C. Coccyx
- D. Atlas
Show answer
Answer: D. Atlas
C1 is the atlas (it holds up the head like Atlas holding the world). C2 is the axis.
Ribs 11 and 12 are known as:
- A. False ribs
- B. Costal cartilage
- C. True ribs
- D. Floating ribs
Show answer
Answer: D. Floating ribs
Floating ribs have no anterior attachment. Ribs 1-7 are true ribs, and ribs 8-10 are false ribs.
The pelvis is formed by the fusion of which bones?
- A. Ilium, sacrum, and coccyx
- B. Ilium, ischium, and pubis
- C. Sacrum, coccyx, and lumbar spine
- D. Ischium, pubis, and femoral head
Show answer
Answer: B. Ilium, ischium, and pubis
Each hip bone forms from these three fused bones. Pelvic fractures can bleed heavily. The sacrum and coccyx join the hip bones at joints but do not fuse with them, and the femoral head sits in the acetabulum as part of the femur, not the hip bone.
Which forearm bone is on the thumb side?
- A. Scaphoid
- B. Ulna
- C. Olecranon
- D. Radius
Show answer
Answer: D. Radius
The radius is on the thumb side, which is also where you take the radial pulse. The ulna is on the pinky side. The scaphoid is a thumb-side bone of the wrist, not the forearm, and the olecranon is the elbow end of the ulna.
Which lower leg bone bears most of the body's weight?
- A. Patella
- B. Fibula
- C. Tibia
- D. Talus
Show answer
Answer: C. Tibia
The tibia (shin bone) bears the weight. The thinner fibula runs along the lateral side.
The skeletal system performs all of these functions EXCEPT:
- A. Blood cell production
- B. Support and protection
- C. Hormone transport
- D. Movement with muscles
Show answer
Answer: C. Hormone transport
It also stores calcium and phosphorus.
Yellow bone marrow consists mainly of:
- A. Fat
- B. Blood-forming cells
- C. Cartilage
- D. Nerve tissue
Show answer
Answer: A. Fat
Red marrow performs hematopoiesis.
The shaft of a long bone is called the:
- A. Periosteum
- B. Epiphysis
- C. Metaphysis
- D. Diaphysis
Show answer
Answer: D. Diaphysis
The ends are the epiphyses.
The growth plate in a child's bone is located at the:
- A. Epiphyseal plate near each end
- B. Medullary cavity of the shaft
- C. Center of the diaphysis, or shaft
- D. Periosteum covering the shaft
Show answer
Answer: A. Epiphyseal plate near each end
The growth plate lies near the bone ends. Injury there can affect future growth.
Compact bone is:
- A. Found only in the skull and pelvis
- B. Dense and forms the outer layer of bone
- C. Soft tissue that fills the marrow cavity
- D. Porous and found inside the bone ends
Show answer
Answer: B. Dense and forms the outer layer of bone
Cancellous or spongy bone lies inside.
Cancellous bone is important because it:
- A. Forms the dense outer shell of bone
- B. Has no blood supply of its own
- C. Is lightweight and houses red marrow
- D. Forms only during childhood growth
Show answer
Answer: C. Is lightweight and houses red marrow
Cancellous bone is lightweight, contains marrow, and absorbs stress. It is also called trabecular bone.
Which cells break down bone tissue?
- A. Osteoblasts
- B. Chondrocytes
- C. Osteocytes
- D. Osteoclasts
Show answer
Answer: D. Osteoclasts
Bone is continuously remodeled.
Mature bone cells maintaining bone tissue are:
- A. Osteoblasts
- B. Osteoclasts
- C. Osteocytes
- D. Fibroblasts
Show answer
Answer: C. Osteocytes
They sit within the bone matrix.
Bone serves as the body's main storage site for:
- A. Sodium and chloride
- B. Iron and vitamin B12
- C. Potassium and magnesium
- D. Calcium and phosphorus
Show answer
Answer: D. Calcium and phosphorus
Calcium is released when blood levels fall.
The skull is composed of the:
- A. Cranium and mandible only
- B. Cranium only
- C. Cranium and facial bones
- D. Facial bones only
Show answer
Answer: C. Cranium and facial bones
The cranium protects the brain.
The only movable bone of the skull is the:
- A. Maxilla
- B. Zygoma
- C. Mandible
- D. Frontal bone
Show answer
Answer: C. Mandible
It articulates at the temporomandibular joint.
The bone at the base of the skull with a large opening for the spinal cord is the:
- A. Parietal bone
- B. Frontal bone
- C. Sphenoid
- D. Occipital bone
Show answer
Answer: D. Occipital bone
That opening is the foramen magnum.
The cheekbone is also called the:
- A. Nasal bone
- B. Mandible
- C. Zygoma
- D. Maxilla
Show answer
Answer: C. Zygoma
It forms part of the orbit.
The upper jaw is formed by the:
- A. Mandible
- B. Zygoma
- C. Vomer
- D. Maxillae
Show answer
Answer: D. Maxillae
It holds the upper teeth.
The sinuses function to:
- A. Cushion the brain against direct impact
- B. Lighten the skull and humidify air
- C. Equalize middle ear pressure
- D. Drain tears into the nasal cavity
Show answer
Answer: B. Lighten the skull and humidify air
They also warm inhaled air and are lined with mucous membrane. The eustachian tube, not the sinuses, equalizes middle ear pressure, and the nasolacrimal duct drains tears into the nose.
The vertebral column consists of how many vertebrae in the adult?
- A. 33, with some fused
- B. 24, all of them movable
- C. 31, matching spinal nerves
- D. 26, none of them fused
Show answer
Answer: A. 33, with some fused
There are 24 movable vertebrae plus the sacrum and coccyx.
How many lumbar vertebrae are there?
- A. 5
- B. 7
- C. 4
- D. 12
Show answer
Answer: A. 5
They are the largest and bear the most weight.
The sacrum consists of:
- A. 5 fused vertebrae
- B. 7 vertebrae
- C. 3 fused vertebrae
- D. 12 vertebrae
Show answer
Answer: A. 5 fused vertebrae
It joins the pelvis at the sacroiliac joints.
The coccyx is formed from:
- A. 1 vertebra
- B. 5 vertebrae
- C. 4 fused vertebrae
- D. 2 fused vertebrae
Show answer
Answer: C. 4 fused vertebrae
It is the tailbone.
C2, which allows rotation of the head, is the:
- A. Axis
- B. Odontoid only
- C. Vertebra prominens
- D. Atlas
Show answer
Answer: A. Axis
The odontoid process projects from it.
Intervertebral discs function to:
- A. Produce marrow for the vertebral bodies
- B. Directly encase and protect the spinal cord
- C. Store calcium released during remodeling
- D. Cushion the vertebrae and allow movement
Show answer
Answer: D. Cushion the vertebrae and allow movement
A herniated disc may compress nerve roots.
The spinal cord is protected by the:
- A. Vertebral bodies alone, anterior to the cord
- B. Ribs that wrap around the thoracic spine
- C. Vertebral foramina forming the spinal canal
- D. Spinous processes alone, behind the cord
Show answer
Answer: C. Vertebral foramina forming the spinal canal
Vertebral fractures may or may not injure the cord.
Ribs 1 through 7 are called:
- A. True ribs
- B. Costal ribs
- C. False ribs
- D. Floating ribs
Show answer
Answer: A. True ribs
True ribs attach directly to the sternum by their own costal cartilage. Ribs 8 to 10 attach indirectly.
The sternum consists of the:
- A. Manubrium, body, and costal cartilages
- B. Body, xiphoid process, and clavicles
- C. Xiphoid process and true ribs only
- D. Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process
Show answer
Answer: D. Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process
The angle of Louis is where the manubrium meets the body.
The xiphoid process is clinically important as:
- A. A CPR landmark and diaphragm attachment
- B. The site where the second rib attaches
- C. The joint between the sternum and clavicle
- D. A major site of adult blood cell production
Show answer
Answer: A. A CPR landmark and diaphragm attachment
The diaphragm attaches to it, and it marks the lower end of the CPR hand position. Avoid compressing directly over it.
The clavicle connects the:
- A. Scapula to the humerus
- B. Humerus to the ribs
- C. Sternum to the ribs
- D. Scapula to the sternum
Show answer
Answer: D. Scapula to the sternum
It is one of the most commonly fractured bones.
The scapula is commonly known as the:
- A. Shoulder blade
- B. Collarbone
- C. Breastbone
- D. Wing bone of the pelvis
Show answer
Answer: A. Shoulder blade
A scapular fracture implies significant force.
The bone of the upper arm is the:
- A. Radius
- B. Humerus
- C. Femur
- D. Ulna
Show answer
Answer: B. Humerus
It articulates at the shoulder and elbow.
The bones of the wrist are the:
- A. Metacarpals
- B. Phalanges
- C. Carpals
- D. Tarsals
Show answer
Answer: C. Carpals
There are eight carpal bones.
The bones of the palm are the:
- A. Phalanges
- B. Metacarpals
- C. Carpals
- D. Radius and ulna
Show answer
Answer: B. Metacarpals
Fingers are phalanges.
The pelvic girdle protects:
- A. The lumbar spinal cord and its roots
- B. The liver, spleen, and upper abdominal organs
- C. The lower abdominal and pelvic organs
- D. The lungs and lower thoracic organs
Show answer
Answer: C. The lower abdominal and pelvic organs
It also transfers weight to the legs.
The upper flaring portion of the pelvis is the:
- A. Ischium
- B. Ilium
- C. Sacrum
- D. Pubis
Show answer
Answer: B. Ilium
The iliac crest is a palpable landmark.
The bone you sit on is the:
- A. Coccyx
- B. Ischium
- C. Ilium
- D. Pubis
Show answer
Answer: B. Ischium
It forms the lower posterior pelvis.
The anterior joint of the pelvis is the:
- A. Sacroiliac joint
- B. Acetabulum
- C. Hip joint
- D. Pubic symphysis
Show answer
Answer: D. Pubic symphysis
It is a cartilaginous joint.
The socket that receives the head of the femur is the:
- A. Condyle
- B. Acetabulum
- C. Glenoid fossa
- D. Olecranon
Show answer
Answer: B. Acetabulum
Hip dislocations displace the femoral head from it.
The kneecap is properly called the:
- A. Patella
- B. Condyle
- C. Meniscus
- D. Tibial plateau
Show answer
Answer: A. Patella
It is a sesamoid bone within a tendon.
The lateral bone of the lower leg is the:
- A. Femur
- B. Talus
- C. Fibula
- D. Tibia
Show answer
Answer: C. Fibula
It bears little weight.
The ankle bones are called the:
- A. Metatarsals
- B. Phalanges
- C. Tarsals
- D. Carpals
Show answer
Answer: C. Tarsals
The calcaneus is the heel bone.
The heel bone is the:
- A. Talus
- B. Navicular
- C. Calcaneus
- D. Cuboid
Show answer
Answer: C. Calcaneus
Falls from height often fracture it.
The medial malleolus is part of the:
- A. Fibula
- B. Femur
- C. Tibia
- D. Talus
Show answer
Answer: C. Tibia
The lateral malleolus belongs to the fibula.
A joint that permits no movement, such as a skull suture, is:
- A. Synovial and freely movable
- B. Cartilaginous and slightly movable
- C. Fibrous or immovable
- D. A synovial hinge joint
Show answer
Answer: C. Fibrous or immovable
Sutures fuse in adulthood.
A slightly movable joint, such as the pubic symphysis, is:
- A. Cartilaginous
- B. Synovial
- C. Ball and socket
- D. Fibrous
Show answer
Answer: A. Cartilaginous
It permits limited motion.
Synovial fluid functions to:
- A. Promote clotting after a joint injury
- B. Nourish the red marrow in the epiphysis
- C. Produce new cartilage on joint surfaces
- D. Lubricate and nourish the joint surfaces
Show answer
Answer: D. Lubricate and nourish the joint surfaces
The synovial membrane secretes it.
A pivot joint allows:
- A. Flexion and extension only
- B. No motion between the bones
- C. Gliding of flat surfaces only
- D. Rotation around a single axis
Show answer
Answer: D. Rotation around a single axis
The joint between C1 and C2 is an example. The radius and ulna form another pivot joint.
A saddle joint is found at the:
- A. Glenohumeral joint
- B. Interphalangeal joints
- C. Base of the thumb
- D. Radiocarpal (wrist) joint
Show answer
Answer: C. Base of the thumb
It permits opposition of the thumb.
A gliding joint is found:
- A. Between humerus and ulna
- B. Between femur and tibia
- C. Between femur and acetabulum
- D. Between adjacent carpal bones
Show answer
Answer: D. Between adjacent carpal bones
Gliding joints also occur between vertebral facets. Motion occurs by surfaces sliding.
Tendons attach:
- A. Bone to bone
- B. Muscle to muscle
- C. Muscle to bone
- D. Cartilage to bone
Show answer
Answer: C. Muscle to bone
They transmit contraction force.
A sprain involves injury to:
- A. Muscle fibers
- B. Bone
- C. Tendons only
- D. Ligaments
Show answer
Answer: D. Ligaments
A strain involves muscle or tendon.
Bursae function to:
- A. Anchor tendons firmly to bone
- B. Bind bone to bone across a joint
- C. Cover the ends of bones in joints
- D. Reduce friction at moving parts
Show answer
Answer: D. Reduce friction at moving parts
Bursae are fluid-filled sacs that reduce friction between moving structures. Inflammation causes bursitis. Tendons themselves attach to bone, ligaments bind bone to bone, and articular cartilage covers the bone ends; bursae are cushions between these moving parts.
Osteoporosis is characterized by:
- A. Excess bone formation
- B. Overgrowth of cartilage
- C. Inflammation of joints
- D. Loss of bone density and mass
Show answer
Answer: D. Loss of bone density and mass
Loss of density increases fracture risk. It is most common in older women.
Kyphosis refers to:
- A. Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine
- B. Fusion of adjacent thoracic vertebrae
- C. Exaggerated rounding of the upper back
- D. Exaggerated inward lumbar curvature
Show answer
Answer: C. Exaggerated rounding of the upper back
Kyphosis is exaggerated forward curvature of the thoracic spine. It complicates airway positioning in older adults.
Scoliosis refers to:
- A. Compression fracture of a vertebra
- B. Loss of the normal lumbar curvature
- C. Abnormal sideways curve of the spine
- D. Exaggerated rounding of the upper back
Show answer
Answer: C. Abnormal sideways curve of the spine
Severe cases affect lung capacity.
Arthritis generally refers to:
- A. Inflammation of a muscle
- B. Irritation of a nerve root
- C. Infection of the bone
- D. Inflammation of a joint with pain
Show answer
Answer: D. Inflammation of a joint with pain
Joint inflammation causes pain and limited motion. Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis differ in cause.
Bone healing after a fracture begins with:
- A. Hematoma formation, then callus
- B. Replacement of the break with cartilage only
- C. Immediate deposition of new compact bone
- D. Scar tissue bridging the bone ends permanently
Show answer
Answer: A. Hematoma formation, then callus
A hematoma forms first, followed by callus development. Complete remodeling takes months.
Which bone injury is most likely to cause significant blood loss?
- A. Nasal or orbital fracture
- B. Wrist or forearm fracture
- C. Finger or toe fracture
- D. Femur or pelvic fracture
Show answer
Answer: D. Femur or pelvic fracture
Pelvic fractures can bleed into the retroperitoneum.
Children's bones differ from adults' in that they:
- A. Contain no red marrow until puberty
- B. Are more brittle and shatter easily
- C. Heal more slowly than adult bone
- D. Are more flexible and may bend
Show answer
Answer: D. Are more flexible and may bend
They may bend or buckle rather than break completely. Greenstick fractures are unique to children.
Red marrow in adults is found primarily in:
- A. Flat bones and vertebrae
- B. Distal bones of the legs
- C. Shafts of the long bones
- D. Small bones of the hands
Show answer
Answer: A. Flat bones and vertebrae
Adult red marrow is concentrated in the sternum, ribs, pelvis, and vertebrae. That is where IO sites and marrow biopsies target.
The periosteum contributes to bone by:
- A. Storing fat for long-term energy
- B. Supplying blood and supporting repair
- C. Producing red marrow inside the shaft
- D. Forming the joint surfaces of bone
Show answer
Answer: B. Supplying blood and supporting repair
It supplies blood and nerves and supports growth and repair. It is richly innervated, which is why fractures hurt.
The appendicular skeleton includes:
- A. The skull and the spinal column
- B. The limbs and their girdles
- C. The ribs, sternum, and thoracic spine
- D. The sacrum, coccyx, and lumbar spine
Show answer
Answer: B. The limbs and their girdles
The axial skeleton forms the central axis.
The thoracic cage functions to:
- A. Protect thoracic organs and aid breathing
- B. Anchor the lower limbs to the axial skeleton
- C. Shield the bladder and lower pelvic organs
- D. Store calcium as its primary function
Show answer
Answer: A. Protect thoracic organs and aid breathing
It protects the heart and lungs. Rib movement changes thoracic volume. Anchoring the lower limbs and protecting the bladder and pelvic organs are roles of the pelvic girdle. Ribs store some calcium, but that is not their main function.
Which structure connects the ribs to the sternum?
- A. Intercostal muscles
- B. Pleural fascia
- C. Intercostal tendons
- D. Costal cartilage
Show answer
Answer: D. Costal cartilage
It allows the chest wall to flex during breathing.
An open fracture is one in which:
- A. The joint is also dislocated
- B. The overlying skin is broken
- C. The bone is bent but not broken
- D. The bone is broken in two places
Show answer
Answer: B. The overlying skin is broken
The skin is broken at or near the fracture site. Infection risk rises considerably.
A dislocation is defined as:
- A. A bone displaced from its joint
- B. A torn ligament without displacement
- C. A complete break through a bone
- D. A torn muscle crossing a joint
Show answer
Answer: A. A bone displaced from its joint
Neurovascular status must be checked.
The most commonly dislocated large joint is the:
- A. Elbow joint
- B. Hip joint
- C. Shoulder joint
- D. Knee joint
Show answer
Answer: C. Shoulder joint
Its mobility comes at the cost of stability.
A knee dislocation is a concern primarily because of:
- A. Risk of injury to the femoral nerve
- B. Risk of injury to the popliteal artery
- C. Risk of tearing the great saphenous vein
- D. Risk of tearing the Achilles tendon
Show answer
Answer: B. Risk of injury to the popliteal artery
Check distal pulses carefully. The popliteal artery is tethered behind the knee and is often injured when the joint dislocates. The femoral nerve ends in the thigh, and the great saphenous vein is a superficial vein whose injury is not the main threat.
Aging affects joints by:
- A. Thinning cartilage and causing stiffness
- B. Improving range of motion over time
- C. Thickening cartilage and increasing fluid
- D. Increasing bone density around joints
Show answer
Answer: A. Thinning cartilage and causing stiffness
Cartilage thins and synovial fluid decreases. Range of motion declines gradually.
Which term describes movement of a limb away from the midline?
- A. Flexion
- B. Abduction
- C. Adduction
- D. Extension
Show answer
Answer: B. Abduction
Adduction brings it back toward the midline.
Flexion refers to:
- A. Moving a limb in a circle
- B. Decreasing the angle at a joint
- C. Increasing the angle at a joint
- D. Turning a bone around its axis
Show answer
Answer: B. Decreasing the angle at a joint
Bending the elbow is flexion.
Rotation refers to:
- A. Bending at a joint
- B. Turning around an axis
- C. Moving toward midline
- D. Moving away from midline
Show answer
Answer: B. Turning around an axis
Turning the head is an example.
More Anatomy and Physiology practice questions
- Levels of organization and chemistry (74)
- Cells, body fluids, and transport (76)
- Tissues, membranes, and homeostasis (42)
- Integumentary system (36)
- Skeletal system
- Muscular system (50)
- Nervous system (109)
- Endocrine system (64)
- Blood (54)
- The heart (81)
- Blood vessels and the lymphatic system (54)
- Respiratory system (105)
- Digestive system and abdomen (63)
- Urinary system and fluid balance (50)
- Reproductive system (37)
Want the whole chapter mixed together? The Chapter 8: Anatomy and Physiology practice test gives you a 10 Question Blitz or a full 100-question exam simulation with a section-by-section score. Browse every paramedic topic or try the NREMT paramedic practice test.
These practice questions were written for this site. They are not the publisher's test bank and are not affiliated with or endorsed by Jones & Bartlett Learning, the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, or the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians. Use them alongside your textbook and your instructor's objectives.