Wellness and Personal Health Practice Questions
37 multiple-choice questions on Wellness and personal health for paramedic and EMT students, from Chapter 2 (Workforce Safety and Wellness). Read each question, pick your answer, then tap Show answer to check it and read the explanation.
37 practice questions
Wellness in EMS is best described as:
- A. A deliberate balance of physical, mental, and emotional health
- B. Passing the annual agency physical examination each year
- C. Freedom from any diagnosed illness, injury, or disability
- D. Meeting the agency's physical ability standards for lifting
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Answer: A. A deliberate balance of physical, mental, and emotional health
Wellness is something you build and keep, not something you either have or don't. A provider maintains it on purpose.
A periodic health examination is valuable to a paramedic because it:
- A. Satisfies state licensing and recertification rules
- B. Replaces the need for routine immunization updates
- C. Documents fitness for workers' compensation claims
- D. Finds problems early and sets a baseline
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Answer: D. Finds problems early and sets a baseline
Early detection beats treating an advanced problem later. The baseline allows comparison over time.
Which immunization is specifically recommended for EMS providers because of bloodborne exposure risk?
- A. Shingles
- B. Hepatitis B
- C. Pneumococcal
- D. Hepatitis A
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Answer: B. Hepatitis B
Employers must offer the hepatitis B vaccine series at no cost to employees with exposure risk.
Annual tuberculosis screening for EMS personnel is done to:
- A. Detect exposure early in close-contact work
- B. Meet insurance requirements for employer coverage
- C. Replace the need for N95 use with TB patients
- D. Confirm immunity from a past TB vaccine
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Answer: A. Detect exposure early in close-contact work
A skin test or blood test identifies infection before disease develops. Providers work closely with patients in enclosed spaces such as ambulances. TB tests look for infection, not vaccine immunity, and the BCG vaccine is not routinely given in the United States.
Which vaccines are commonly recommended for health care workers besides hepatitis B?
- A. Pneumococcal and shingles vaccines only
- B. Rabies, typhoid, and yellow fever
- C. Influenza only, during respiratory season
- D. Influenza, MMR, varicella, and Tdap
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Answer: D. Influenza, MMR, varicella, and Tdap
Requirements vary by employer and state, but these are the usual core group.
Tobacco use is a particular concern for EMS providers because it:
- A. Reduces the fitness the job demands
- B. Is prohibited for EMS providers by federal law
- C. Matters mainly for long-term lung cancer risk
- D. Is the leading cause of on-duty EMS deaths
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Answer: A. Reduces the fitness the job demands
Quitting improves circulation and lung function within weeks. It also raises long-term cardiovascular and lung disease risk.
Using alcohol to unwind after difficult calls is a problem because it:
- A. Is illegal for off-duty EMS providers
- B. Improves sleep but slows reaction time
- C. Only matters if you are on call afterward
- D. Masks stress and can lead to dependence
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Answer: D. Masks stress and can lead to dependence
It also degrades sleep quality, which worsens the underlying stress. It does not resolve the stress itself.
Hearing protection matters in EMS mainly because of:
- A. Occasional helicopter landing zone exposure
- B. Siren and engine noise over a career
- C. Loud patients and family members on scene
- D. Constant radio traffic through earpieces
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Answer: B. Siren and engine noise over a career
Noise-induced hearing loss is gradual and permanent.
The most common career-ending injury in EMS involves the:
- A. Back
- B. Shoulder
- C. Wrist
- D. Knee
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Answer: A. Back
Lifting injuries account for a large share of lost work time.
Which statement about personal fitness in EMS is accurate?
- A. Fitness matters mainly for rescue and fire crews
- B. Aerobic fitness matters, but strength does not
- C. Endurance, strength, and flexibility all matter
- D. Upper-body strength alone meets job demands
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Answer: C. Endurance, strength, and flexibility all matter
Exercise also improves sleep and stress tolerance. Together they meet job demands and help prevent injury.
Staying hydrated during a shift is important because dehydration:
- A. Is only a concern during summer months
- B. Sharpens alertness by raising adrenaline
- C. Impairs concentration and heat tolerance
- D. Mainly affects athletic performance
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Answer: C. Impairs concentration and heat tolerance
Fatigue and poor decisions can start with something that simple. It also adds to fatigue.
Regarding health behaviors, the paramedic should recognize that:
- A. Patients rarely notice providers' own habits
- B. Only supervisors need to model healthy habits
- C. Personal habits are separate from job duties
- D. Providers' habits affect credibility
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Answer: D. Providers' habits affect credibility
It is hard to teach prevention you don't practice. Those habits also affect how long a provider's career lasts.
The three commonly described components of wellness are:
- A. Work, family, and personal health
- B. Strength, speed, and endurance
- C. Physical, mental, and emotional
- D. Diet, exercise, and sleep habits
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Answer: C. Physical, mental, and emotional
Neglecting one undermines the others.
The leading cause of death among EMS providers on duty is related to:
- A. Assaults by patients or bystanders
- B. Lifting and moving injuries
- C. Occupational infectious disease
- D. Vehicle and transportation events
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Answer: D. Vehicle and transportation events
Restraint use and driving practice matter most. Vehicle collisions are the main contributor.
A paramedic has a needlestick from a patient with hepatitis C. Why does her pre-employment baseline blood testing matter now?
- A. It decides which antiviral drug she should start
- B. It shows whether the source patient is infectious
- C. It removes the need for follow-up testing
- D. It shows she was negative before the exposure
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Answer: D. It shows she was negative before the exposure
A baseline result showing she was uninfected before the exposure is what lets a later positive test be tied to this exposure, which matters for her care and for workers' compensation. Baseline tests do not choose drugs, and there is no hepatitis C post-exposure prophylaxis to start. They say nothing about the source patient. Follow-up testing is still needed because infection takes weeks to show up.
Which screening is appropriate for EMS providers because of occupational exposure?
- A. Bone density and thyroid screening
- B. TB screening and hepatitis B titer
- C. Annual vision and color-blindness testing
- D. Routine colonoscopy and mammography
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Answer: B. TB screening and hepatitis B titer
Requirements vary by employer and state.
A hepatitis B vaccine series must be offered by employers:
- A. Free to those with exposure risk
- B. Only to paramedic-level providers
- C. At the employee's own expense
- D. Only after a documented exposure
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Answer: A. Free to those with exposure risk
This is an OSHA requirement. It must be offered at no cost to those with occupational exposure risk.
A provider who declines the hepatitis B vaccine should:
- A. Pay for any future titer testing
- B. Be reassigned to non-patient duties
- C. Be terminated under OSHA rules
- D. Sign a declination; may accept later
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Answer: D. Sign a declination; may accept later
The offer must remain open. They sign a declination form and can still accept the vaccine later.
Annual influenza vaccination for health care workers is recommended primarily to:
- A. Protect providers and vulnerable patients
- B. Satisfy the agency's insurance carrier
- C. Reduce sick days rather than transmission
- D. Protect the provider from missed shifts
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Answer: A. Protect providers and vulnerable patients
Patients in EMS care are often high risk.
Which vaccine protects against a disease spread by the airborne route that EMS providers may encounter?
- A. MMR
- B. Tetanus-diphtheria
- C. Hepatitis A
- D. Hepatitis B
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Answer: A. MMR
Measles outbreaks have occurred in recent years. MMR covers measles, mumps, and rubella; measles spreads by the airborne route.
Tetanus vaccination should be updated approximately every:
- A. Every year
- B. Every 20 years
- C. Once in a lifetime
- D. Every 10 years
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Answer: D. Every 10 years
Tdap includes pertussis protection. A booster may be needed sooner after a contaminated wound.
Hearing conservation in EMS involves:
- A. Testing hearing once ringing is noticed
- B. Limiting sirens and periodic testing
- C. Relying on cab insulation to block noise
- D. Using earplugs only during extrication
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Answer: B. Limiting sirens and periodic testing
Hearing loss from noise is permanent. Use hearing protection where appropriate. Ringing in the ears means damage has already started, and cab insulation does not bring siren noise down to safe levels.
Back health in EMS is best protected by:
- A. Wearing a back support belt on every call
- B. Good body mechanics and help
- C. Upper-body strength training alone
- D. Avoiding lifting whenever possible
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Answer: B. Good body mechanics and help
Back belts alone have not proven protective. Lifting equipment, adequate help, and core fitness all contribute.
Which is true about smoking cessation for a provider?
- A. Benefits are mainly cosmetic ones
- B. Lungs improve within weeks
- C. No benefit after years of smoking
- D. Benefits take decades to appear
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Answer: B. Lungs improve within weeks
Cardiovascular risk falls steadily after quitting. Circulation improves early as well.
Alcohol use becomes a problem for a provider when it:
- A. Is consumed on a scheduled day off
- B. Happens off duty rather than on duty
- C. Occurs in any amount, even socially
- D. Harms duty, health, or is used to cope
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Answer: D. Harms duty, health, or is used to cope
Using it as a coping tool is the warning sign. Effects on duty readiness, health, or relationships are also red flags.
A provider taking a new prescription medication that causes drowsiness should:
- A. Work as scheduled and monitor for effects
- B. Discuss it with physician and supervisor
- C. Stop the medication on work days only
- D. Take a lower dose on shift days only
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Answer: B. Discuss it with physician and supervisor
Impairment is impairment regardless of source. Duty implications must be addressed before working.
Routine dental and vision care matter to providers because:
- A. They are inexpensive preventive services
- B. Untreated problems affect performance
- C. They are required for recertification
- D. Employers require them for driving
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Answer: B. Untreated problems affect performance
Vision matters for driving and drug labels. They also affect overall health.
Skin protection for providers working outdoors includes:
- A. Nothing beyond a hat in summer
- B. Sunscreen, clothing, and skin checks
- C. Sunscreen when the sky is clear
- D. Sunglasses during daytime calls only
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Answer: B. Sunscreen, clothing, and skin checks
Cumulative exposure raises skin cancer risk. Ultraviolet light passes through clouds, so protection is needed on overcast days too.
Which statement about immunization records is accurate?
- A. They are unnecessary once vaccinated
- B. They expire and must be redone yearly
- C. Providers should keep their own copies
- D. The employer keeps the only official copy
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Answer: C. Providers should keep their own copies
Reconstructing them later is difficult. They are needed when changing jobs or after exposures.
Personal wellness contributes to patient safety because:
- A. It reduces agency insurance costs
- B. It simplifies shift scheduling
- C. Fatigue and stress impair judgment
- D. It projects a professional appearance
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Answer: C. Fatigue and stress impair judgment
Provider health is a system safety issue. Illness impairs performance too.
Which best describes an effective agency wellness program?
- A. Mandatory weigh-ins every quarter
- B. Addressing all wellness areas
- C. Discounted gym memberships alone
- D. Annual pass/fail fitness testing alone
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Answer: B. Addressing all wellness areas
Single-element programs rarely change outcomes. That means fitness, nutrition, sleep, mental health, and injury prevention.
Chronic dehydration in EMS providers most often results from:
- A. Skipping fluids, relying on caffeine
- B. Too much exercise before shifts start
- C. Working mainly in cold, dry weather
- D. Poor water quality at many stations
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Answer: A. Skipping fluids, relying on caffeine
Keep water accessible in the unit.
A provider who works multiple jobs should recognize that:
- A. More total hours build skills faster
- B. Employers coordinate their schedules
- C. Total fatigue affects safety
- D. Sleep needs decrease with experience
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Answer: C. Total fatigue affects safety
Total hours matter, not hours per employer. This holds even when each job is within policy.
Which statement about provider health in EMS is accurate?
- A. Providers are healthier than average
- B. They carry higher cardiovascular risk
- C. Only older providers face health risks
- D. Occupational health risks are negligible
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Answer: B. They carry higher cardiovascular risk
The work environment contributes heavily. Rates of obesity and sleep problems are also higher than in the general population.
Ergonomic risks in the ambulance include:
- A. Only lifting the cot into the unit
- B. Noise from the siren and engine
- C. Awkward positions while moving
- D. Exposure to exhaust fumes at idle
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Answer: C. Awkward positions while moving
Vehicle design improvements target these. Reaching across the cot is another. Noise and exhaust are workplace hazards, but not ergonomic ones; ergonomic risk comes from posture, reaching, and lifting.
The best time to address a health concern is:
- A. At the annual physical only
- B. After it interferes with work
- C. After an injury occurs
- D. Early, through routine care
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Answer: D. Early, through routine care
Delayed care turns small problems into career-ending ones. Screening helps find problems early.
A provider's responsibility for their own wellness includes:
- A. Nothing beyond duty fitness
- B. Waiting for employer programs
- C. Actively managing own health
- D. Following agency rules only
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Answer: C. Actively managing own health
Agencies support, but the provider owns it. That includes sleep, fitness, nutrition, and mental health.
More Workforce Safety and Wellness practice questions
- Wellness and personal health
- Nutrition, fitness, and sleep (39)
- Body mechanics and lifting (35)
- Stress and coping (42)
- Death, dying, and grief (35)
- Infectious disease basics (42)
- PPE and infection control (40)
- Exposure response and protections (30)
- Scene safety and hazards (42)
- Ambulance and roadway safety (33)
- Mental health and support (26)
Want the whole chapter mixed together? The Chapter 2: Workforce Safety and Wellness practice test gives you a 10 Question Blitz or a full 100-question exam simulation with a section-by-section score. This topic is part of the EMS Operations practice questions exam area. Browse every paramedic topic or try the NREMT paramedic practice test.
These practice questions were written for this site. They are not the publisher's test bank and are not affiliated with or endorsed by Jones & Bartlett Learning, the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, or the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians. Use them alongside your textbook and your instructor's objectives.